Re: Why would the DO allow that the TP is used against him?
j-whitt987 Send a noteboard - 29/11/2009 08:05:01 PM
On page 345 while LTT is rambling in Rand's head he mentions that he had to use something to touch the Dark One to seal him away (thus the taint on the OP). What if this time around Rand uses the DO's power to touch him and seal him away? Sorry if it's been mentioned before, but I found it to be kinda interesting.
Besides, RJ said once: "The True Power used at Shayol Ghul will fry you instantly."
I don't remember that being said, but that would be a point against me. But wasn't it also stated (or at least implied) that the True Power couldn't be used without the DO's permission? Rand used it to break free of the male ad'am that was placed on him. So why wouldn't he be able to use it again?
Kirk: Spock, you want to know something? Everybody’s human.
Spock: I find that remark…insulting.
Spock: I find that remark…insulting.
Sealing the DO? *tGS Spoilers*
- 29/11/2009 07:52:07 PM
1002 Views
Why would the DO allow that the TP is used against him?
- 29/11/2009 07:58:36 PM
752 Views
Re: Why would the DO allow that the TP is used against him?
- 29/11/2009 08:05:01 PM
720 Views
Generally you need a permission...
- 29/11/2009 08:17:35 PM
723 Views
Re: Generally you need a permission...
- 30/11/2009 09:39:54 AM
681 Views
I also think RJ mentioned that anyone who tries to use the TP in SG gets fried. *NM*
- 29/11/2009 11:00:33 PM
293 Views