In light of the recent Jackie Robinson anniversary, Major League Baseball, or MLB, released a report that shows that only 8.5% of baseball players are black. The all time high was around 27% back in the 70s. With all due respect to the black community, and no with zero racist intentions, is there really a problem? Let me explain.
Only about 12% of Americans is black, so 8.5% is an underrepresentation, yes, but as you note, there are social and cultural factors explaining why other sports are generally speaking more popular among black people than baseball. Taking that into account, seems perfectly alright to me, lacking evidence of anti-black discrimination (which I'm not saying doesn't exist, but you don't mention it at least and I don't know much about baseball myself).
The thing with race in the US - in some other countries it's the same way, but certainly not in all - is that it's mixed up so much with social and cultural factors. Obama is a case in point; calling him an "African-American" is obviously correct literally (half correct, anyway), but if "African-American" refers to the socio-cultural group(s) rather than to pure race, he's only a member of that group to the extent that he assimilated into it when he was already an adult. He's the first black president - only partially an African-American president in the usual meaning of that word, though.
Which is why, in the US, more than elsewhere (except for South-Africa, I suppose), race disparities in sports have to do with sociocultural factors more than with any more strictly racial factors like genetic advantages or racism in the sport. Which doesn't mean those factors don't exist, just that they aren't the primary factor.
A question concerning race
17/04/2012 07:00:05 PM
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Doesn't seem like a problem to me
17/04/2012 07:07:20 PM
- 415 Views
Yes
17/04/2012 08:27:47 PM
- 459 Views
It isn't discrimination. It would be if they do something to raise the participation rate though
17/04/2012 08:46:59 PM
- 387 Views
Can't see the problem either.
17/04/2012 09:03:02 PM
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To me its not a problem... but I understand why some think it is.
17/04/2012 10:39:20 PM
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seems more about cultural trends than any kind of racial discrimination IMO *NM*
18/04/2012 05:45:39 AM
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Also, a person of, shall we say, Negro appearance, doesn't count if he's from Latin America
18/04/2012 11:22:07 AM
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I was going to point out it's not the 1970s, but for you "Negro" is practically progressive. *NM*
18/04/2012 11:54:20 AM
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In this context it's a suitable usage. Besides, wasn't the term used on the 2010 US Census? *NM*
18/04/2012 12:31:41 PM
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Wouldn't a spanish speaking dark-skinned person refer to themselves that way?
18/04/2012 12:51:43 PM
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Well at least he didn't use it as a noun THANK GOD AMIRITE #Privileged *NM*
19/04/2012 04:01:28 AM
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