I realize retailers have "the right to refuse service to anyone" (provided they do not explicitly say they are exercising it on the basis of race, creed, gender or sexual orientation. ) My point was that just because facilitating an immoral act does not make one culpable for it (which I would dispute in cases where one knows the facilitation will directly produce such an act that would otherwise not have not have occurred) does not mean that facilitation can be compelled without infringing on the facilitators religious freedom. Another analogy, specific to religion: If the Mormon Church chose to reimburse employees for groceries, that would not obligate them to pay for alcohol their doctrine forbids.