I have some questions that I can't seem to find the answers for. Any help would be appreciated.

1. Is there any evidence that Gandalf ever used Narya during the three books? Considering it was rumoured to cause courage in the hearts of men, could one assume that he used it at the great battles like the Pelenor fields to rouse some bravery in the soldiers?

2. The Ring bearers can see one another's rings. How did Frodo not see Gandalf's, yet he saw Galadriel's? Was he perhaps just not observant?

3. When Gandalf tells the Balrog that he is the 'servant of the secret fire, keeper of the flame of Anor', is he referring to the Ring?

4. Why did Gil-galad give the greatest of the Rings to Elrond? One would think that he'd give it to Galadriel who is far older and of the highest kin amongst the Noldor. Instead she kept the weaker ring while the most potent was given to a half-elf.

5. Why were the Elves not dominated by the Rings like men were? There are several suggestions out there, namely that they took the rings off when they sensed him, or that their will could match his, and finally, that Sauron never tainted the three Elven rings made by Celebrimbor, though he had access to the others.

6. Is there any evidence that the Rings of Power failed when the One Ring was destroyed? As far as I can tell, the Elves were merely paranoid about it and went to the West 'in case' their lands withered.

Thanks