Why does the OP usage need to disappear for rand to succeed?
Nargs Send a noteboard - 29/11/2010 02:49:36 AM
I would have thought that the obvious conclusion to TG would be to use both powers to Seal away the DO for good, but then also cut off human access to both powers to prevent the taint from causing another breaking.
When was this ever alluded to and how does it appear to you to be so obvious?
One possibility here is that in Aviendha's vision, Rand did not seal the Bore properly.
Doubt it.
[Seanchan...] though I think they have enough motive regardless
yes.
Saidin and Saidar
- 29/11/2010 02:12:42 AM
1172 Views
Why does the OP usage need to disappear for rand to succeed?
- 29/11/2010 02:49:36 AM
744 Views
Perhaps "obvious" is the wrong word - replace it with "most likely".
- 29/11/2010 03:10:20 AM
641 Views
Re: Perhaps "obvious" is the wrong word - replace it with "most likely".
- 30/11/2010 12:07:20 PM
614 Views
how do cannons out-range channelers? Rand says he can channel up to 5 miles away.
- 30/11/2010 08:37:34 PM
576 Views
In order for time to conitune along it's wheel-like path.
- 29/11/2010 01:36:08 PM
886 Views
there's no reason why people shouldn't be able to touch the OP....
- 29/11/2010 05:11:06 PM
590 Views
Oh yes, it's a huge giveaway by brandon...
- 29/11/2010 05:09:19 PM
660 Views
Whichever author wrote it, fact remains that it's a pretty big reveal.
- 30/11/2010 04:08:30 AM
566 Views