Why does the OP usage need to disappear for rand to succeed?
Nargs Send a noteboard - 29/11/2010 02:49:36 AM
I would have thought that the obvious conclusion to TG would be to use both powers to Seal away the DO for good, but then also cut off human access to both powers to prevent the taint from causing another breaking.
When was this ever alluded to and how does it appear to you to be so obvious?
One possibility here is that in Aviendha's vision, Rand did not seal the Bore properly.
Doubt it.
[Seanchan...] though I think they have enough motive regardless
yes.
Saidin and Saidar
- 29/11/2010 02:12:42 AM
1239 Views
Why does the OP usage need to disappear for rand to succeed?
- 29/11/2010 02:49:36 AM
804 Views
Perhaps "obvious" is the wrong word - replace it with "most likely".
- 29/11/2010 03:10:20 AM
705 Views
Re: Perhaps "obvious" is the wrong word - replace it with "most likely".
- 30/11/2010 12:07:20 PM
670 Views
how do cannons out-range channelers? Rand says he can channel up to 5 miles away.
- 30/11/2010 08:37:34 PM
642 Views
In order for time to conitune along it's wheel-like path.
- 29/11/2010 01:36:08 PM
947 Views
there's no reason why people shouldn't be able to touch the OP....
- 29/11/2010 05:11:06 PM
652 Views
Oh yes, it's a huge giveaway by brandon...
- 29/11/2010 05:09:19 PM
727 Views
Whichever author wrote it, fact remains that it's a pretty big reveal.
- 30/11/2010 04:08:30 AM
621 Views