that it is a matter of personal opinion how 'retarded' someone's accent sounds, or how retarded particular features of their speech sound)?
What exactly makes 'pacifically' a pronounciation inherently inferior to 'specifically'?
It becomes a homophone admittedly, but the context should make it clear which is being used, as with most homophone pairs. Additionally, the same reasoning could lead to labelling the pronounciation of 'witch' and 'which' as ,moronic, as they are distinguished by some speakers.
I am not saying that your problem with this pronounciation is the homophony - it may not be. I am curious though, as to what your reasoning is. The homophony was just my first thought.
Well the accent is not something that bothers me. After all, some people say I have an accent, and certainly most of the people I work with/know/love have an accent. I don't think that matters. It is the misuse of words, the incorrect grammar and the mispronounciation that did it. Again, I was not of the opinion that it was because he was from Atlanta/the South. That was something I was told.
Whatever though...